In around the sixth inning, UT batting, man on first, and I believe a balk was called, so the man on first was awarded second base. Nothing unusual about that part of the play.
The batter had a 3-1 count, and he had hit a ball to third, I think, but the umpire called the balk and time (I think), and the batter returned to home plate due to the dead ball rule.
Then Augie comes out and discusses the ruling, the home plate umpire goes out to discuss the rule with the third base umpire, and then the batter is awarded first base.
Why was the batter awarded first base?
Is it because there shouldn't be a dead ball called when a balk is issued if the pitcher is already throwing the ball? Did the umpire screw up by calling the play dead at that point?
That's my belief, but I would like an expert to clarify, so have at it, rules book cognoscenti.
Not sure based on your story, because something other than the situation you described would have to occur for the batter to be awarded first base. Maybe some type of interference call in addition to the balk?
It sounds a lot like the fielder's interference rule in which an umpire indicates a violation by raising his arm, but does not stop play. The runners advance one base essentially risk-free. If they make it, no call, but if they're put out, the call reverses the put out.